It is not confusing at all really Ill try to help . I don't understand why people think it is not her house ?
of course it is, she owns it . Now I am no expert , there are people on here like cloudchaser better qualified than myself
But this is how I see it . Skanky paid £1,350,000 for the house . Now Obviously I do not know how much of the mortgage was paid off. When you Become Bankrupt If your house can be sold ,and after paying the Mortgage off and costs if your share of the profit comes to over £1000 , the official Receiver will sell it . However, if the House is in negative equity , which means that basically if the house is sold it makes a loss, it is not worth the official receiver selling it , he won't get any money , a charge is put on the property which I think means the property cannot be sold, lease granted or remortgaged without consent of the official receiver ,
Normally after 2 years 3 months after Bankruptcy the position is reviewed and if it is still in negative equity it is unlikely it will be sold and it would transfer back to her. which is about Now . Wether this is affected by her being Bankrupt indefinitely until the or decides otherwise I am not sure , Still Being Bankrupt obviously does not discharge you of the obligation to pay the mortgage , if she hasn't it will be repossesed .
But the long and short of it is she still owns the house
Hope this helps ,
I've called it "Puss in Laboutans"
